Today's lesson is another very clear example wherein the term "baptize" describes, not only an immersion into water, but also, the introduction to a doctrinal message that was, is being, or is to be taught. This is very important in that there is much misunderstanding as to what is meant by the phrases "baptized into Christ" or "baptized in the name of Christ", both of which imply an acceptance of His doctrine as fact, therefore placing their faith in it.
This quote establishes that Jesus did indeed "baptize" however, the baptism He administered DID NOT imply water as the medium into which that baptism is, or was, to occur. The scholars, who translated this quote, whom in most applications implied water as the medium into which a "baptizO" is to occur, obviously confronted a dilemma when trying to translate this particular text when that same term defined the doctrine that Jesus taught as well as the water immersions John the Baptist administered. They even saw fit to clarify that Jesus DID NOT baptize with water, "John 4:2, "(Though Jesus himself baptized not, but his disciples,)
It is clearly evident that when the term "baptizeth" was referenced to something Jesus did, it was in regard to His teaching His doctrine and NOT to the water baptisms administered by John.
This example is evidence that the transliteration of the term "baptizO" does not adequately describe all the intents implied by its many applications in the bible text.
The body of this quote is a very important study within itself in that it defines the difference in John's divine purpose and that Jesus.
Again, I would be happy to answer any questions anyone might have concerning this matter.~
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